Friday, December 9, 2011

Headline of the Day

From the Christian Science Monitor:

"Gay marriage: Court weighs validity of Prop. 8 ruling by gay judge"

Why isn't the sexual orientation of the judges who are weighing the validity of the "gay judge's" Prop 8 ruling mentioned?

If they rule for or against Judge Walker's ruling, will their sexual orientations subsequently be put on trial?

Or, is sexual orientation only relevant if it's a homasexuloogedyboogedy judge making the call? Is this because heterosexual judges are inherently objective about matters that affect the rights of gay, lesbian, and bisexual people, in the way that white people are more objective about, say, affirmative-action cases and men more objective about sexual harassment claims?


Consider this an open thread to talk about privilege, fauxbjective, and whatevs.

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